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Post by robin on Sept 22, 2011 13:38:02 GMT -8
Does Jesus' death constitute human sacrifice? Has anyone ever heard this objection form atheists or Jews? If so how do you respond?
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Post by Josh on Sept 22, 2011 15:49:52 GMT -8
I would ask them to define "human sacrifice" and then make comparisons and point out dissimilarities between their definition and Jesus' atoning death. More often I hear from atheists that God the Father sending His son, or needing his son to die on behalf of sins, is sadistic, like in this discussion with Moritz on a Dawkin's quote: www.aletheia.proboards.com/index.cgi?board=suffering&action=display&thread=1380 |
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Post by Josh on Sept 22, 2011 20:06:38 GMT -8
Did you put this under "is the Bible contradictory?" because there are passages that teach against human sacrifice in the Bible (Lev. 20:2, Deut. 18:10) and yet Jesus was a "sacrifice" (eg, 1 John 4:10)?
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Post by robin on Sept 23, 2011 7:09:31 GMT -8
Did you put this under "is the Bible contradictory?" because there are passages that teach against human sacrifice in the Bible (Lev. 20:2, Deut. 18:10) and yet Jesus was a "sacrifice" (eg, 1 John 4:10)? Yes. If there's a more appropriate place feel free to move it. |
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Post by stevekimes on Oct 7, 2011 13:55:51 GMT -8
The Bible makes it clear that Jesus' death was done by free will, not compulsion. In other words, it is the difference between a father killing his son and a son willingly dying for the sake of others. The only ones who killed Jesus were the Sanhedrin and the Romans. It was God's will that Jesus die, but Jesus himself said that if he wanted to, he could have called on the power of God to save him. God would have stepped in, but Jesus refused that help for the greater good.
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