ben
Advanced Member
Posts: 115
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Post by ben on Sept 10, 2009 20:28:48 GMT -8
I had a discussion last Sunday with Michelle and Chris about "baptized for the dead" in 1 Cor 15:29. Did you know that scholars have forty different views for that verse?
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Post by Josh on Sept 10, 2009 20:40:00 GMT -8
Which one do you like best?
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Post by krhagan19 on Sept 11, 2009 5:33:43 GMT -8
I agree with the flow of this basic commentary "The Bible clearly shows that, before a person may be baptized, he must first repent (Acts 2:38) and believe (Mark 16:16; Acts 16:31, 33). The dead are not able to repent or believe, because "the dead know nothing" (Ecclesiastes 9:5). baptism is for the living; it is a symbol whereby the living acknowledge their sins, figuratively die with Christ in a watery grave, and rise out of that watery grave to live a new, righteous life through Jesus Christ and the indwelling of the Holy Spirit (Romans 6:4; 8:9; Galatians 2:20). " bibletools.org/index.cfm/fuseaction/Bible.show/sVerseID/28748/eVerseID/28748
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ben
Advanced Member
Posts: 115
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Post by ben on Sept 11, 2009 12:19:14 GMT -8
I like what Chris said in that Paul was not endorsing the ritual but was expounding the fact that if Christ was not raised from the dead why have the ritual. But since scholars have so many different views, I am satisfied that no one really knows what this verse is saying. I think the fact that God knows is enough for me.
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Post by christopher on Sept 11, 2009 21:55:43 GMT -8
And more importantly, we should be very slow to employ any practical applications from it. (Josh, I think we should hold off on the necro-baptism for a few more weeks )
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Post by yeshuafreak on Sept 12, 2009 16:49:03 GMT -8
the corinthian people were being persuaded by the saducees (who did not believe in the resurrection) that people would not be resurrected.
now, being saducees they blelieved in Torah only, so Sha'ul pointed out that Torah prescribes "baptism" (mikveh- ritual bath) for one who touched a dead person. this is "baptism fo the dead". He pointed out that Torah prescribed this because it is in honor of a mans resurrection.
it is not a pagan practice or anything, but found in our very scripture. my understanding of this came from the historical fact that christian baptism started out as jewish mikveh.
shalom, and may God bestow knowledge on all of you.
john
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Post by Josh on Sept 12, 2009 20:08:34 GMT -8
Interesting theory, yeshuafreak. I'll look into it some more.
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Post by yeshuafreak on Sept 12, 2009 21:09:04 GMT -8
start by reading num. 23 (i think thats where it talks about dead people)
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Post by krhagan19 on Sept 12, 2009 23:16:09 GMT -8
As a general rule of theological thumb if only sects that mainline Christendom considers cults practices the rite, then it is probably not good.
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Post by yeshuafreak on Sept 13, 2009 11:10:51 GMT -8
its not bad to do mikveh because you touched a dead person. he wrote the verse because he was trying to PROVE the resurrection through it. if it was a false teaching than there would be no substance to his argument.
the mikveh theory ends all of that contraversy. shalom
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Post by Josh on Sept 13, 2009 16:59:44 GMT -8
I know that I personally like to wash after being in contact with dead bodies, so I'm good...
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